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The concentration of free fatty acids and its effects on myocardial contractility were studied in the blood of 40 patients with non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) and 11 healthy control subjects. The blood serum was fractionated by means of a system of thin-layer chromatography (TLC). The concentrations of the free fatty acids were determined in the fraction obtained from the TLC plates. The fraction of free fatty acids was found to be higher in the blood of the NIDDM patients than in the blood of control subjects. Analysis of the microviscosity of erythrocyte and content of osmotic pressure demonstrated a characteristic changes in osmotic properties of the erythrocyte in NIDDM.1. Field of the Invention
The present invention relates to a multilayer ceramic capacitor and a manufacturing method thereof, and more specifically to a multilayer ceramic capacitor having a high capacitance and having a small size and a manufacturing method thereof.
2. Description of the Related Art
In recent years, with the miniaturization of electronic devices, the miniaturization of multilayer ceramic capacitors used in the electronic devices is demanded.
Conventionally, as a multilayer ceramic capacitor used in the electronic devices, a multilayer ceramic capacitor in which thinning of an inner electrode has been achieved by adopting an Ag thin film having a thickness of 100 nm or less as an inner electrode layer has been put into practical use (refer to Patent Documents 1 and 2).
As the outermost electrode layer of such a multilayer ceramic capacitor, a plurality of conductive paste layers that are different in conductivity type are alternately stacked to form an approximately rectangular external terminal portion, and the external terminal portion is

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Is this statement false?

Is this statement false?
$\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{\left(\ln n\right)^n}{n!}$
I’m making sure I’m not going in the wrong direction and I believe that I can’t use the multiplication rule of the nth power of logarithm and nth power of factorial, so the answer is indeed false. What else could I do to make sure I’m understanding this correctly?

A:

Yeah, it’s false because
$$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{\left(\ln n\right)^n}{n!} = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\left(\ln n\right)^n}{\ln n} = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{\ln n} = \int_0^\infty \frac{1}{\ln x}\,dx$$
But we know that
$$\int_0^\infty \frac{1}{\ln x}\,dx = \infty$$
Thus, the series diverges.

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